Romans 9:5 says that Jesus is God
In the Apostle Paul’s magnum opus, the Epistle to the Romans, he describes God’s plan of salvation. From the universality of sin and sin’s effects to the role of the Law and faith, from predestination all the way to glorification and much more, Romans has straightened out many misconceptions about soteriology (the doctrine of salvation).
Among the truths in the Book of Romans, is a gem which often goes unnoticed. In chapter 9 is one of many biblical statements which explicitly states that Jesus is God. In Romans 9:5 Paul, speaking of his Jewish kinsmen, states,
To them belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen. (ESV)
The phrase in view here is Paul’s description of “the Christ.” whom he identifies as “God.” This is unambiguously a reference to the historical person, Jesus of Nazareth.
Paul’s use of the term “Christ” in Romans
Romans 9:5 references “ the Christ who is God” but does not use the word “Jesus” explicitly. This fact should not detour us from confidently recognizing that this passage does teach that Jesus is God. Paul’s usage of the word Christ (Greek, Χριστὸς) sufficiently proves that he is referring to Jesus, even if he does not use Jesus’ name (Ἰησοῦς). Χριστὸς in Greek means “anointed one,” equivalent to the term “messiah” (see John 1:41; 4:25). In Romans Paul does not deviate from this meaning.
Paul addresses the Roman Christians as “a servant of Christ Jesus” ( Παῦλος δοῦλος Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ). The words “Christ Jesus” (Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ) are in the same case (genitive) and number (singular). Syntactically this is a genitive of simple apposition, where both nouns are in the same case.[1] When two nouns are in simple apposition they are syntactical equivalents, referring to the same thing. The phrase “Christ Jesus” appears again in Romans 14 more times (2:16; 3:24; 6:3, 11, 23; 8:1, 2, 11, 34, 39; 15:5, 16, 17; 16:3). “Christ Jesus” is also referred to as “Jesus Christ” by reversing the order of the two words, this is also a genitive of simple apposition which Paul uses no less than 17 times in Romans (1:4, 6, 7, 8; 3:22; 5:1, 11, 15, 17, 21; 7:25; 13:14; 15:6, 30; 16:20, 25, 27).
Paul has in mind the same man who died (Rom. 8:34) and was resurrected from the dead when he refers to “Jesus Christ”/”Christ Jesus” (Rom. 1:4; 8:11), the same man who said that the Father has given all judgment to the son (Rom. 2:16; see John 5:22). Paul has in mind the same name into which Christians are baptized (Rom. 6:3, see Matt. 28:19), the same man whose Father gives Christians the Holy Spirit to dwell in them (Rom. 8:11, see John 15:17), the same man who intercedes for all Christians (Rom. 8:34, see John 17:20ff; Heb 7:25). Perhaps, most personal to Paul, was that when he spoke of “Jesus Christ”/”Christ Jesus,” he was speaking of the same person whom he encountered on the road to Damascus, who appointed him “to carry my name before the Gentiles and kings and the children of Israel” (Acts 9:15). Paul references his calling in 1:1 and explicitly identifies the one who called him in 15:15-16.
But on some points I have written to you very boldly by way of reminder, because of the grace given me by God to be a minister of Christ Jesus to the Gentiles in the priestly service of the gospel of God, so that the offering of the Gentiles may be acceptable, sanctified by the Holy Spirit. (Italics mine)
Paul concludes chapter 8 by speaking of the unique and indestructible “love of God in Christ Jesus our Lord” (8:39) and begins chapter 9 by assuring his readers that he is “speaking the truth in Christ” (9:1).In verse 3 Paul again refers to “Christ” in a passionate plea on behalf of his kinsmen according to the flesh, his Jewish brethren. Now, in verses 4 and 5 he says a number of things about the Jews (note the beginning of each verse “They are Israelites…” “To them belong…”). His love for his people is not merely sentimental, but it is also a recognition of their important role in the history of redemption. Among their contributions “is the Christ who is God over all” (9:5). Note how Paul uses the term “Christ” without the word “Jesus” in verses 1, 3, and 5. He is clearly speaking of the same “Christ Jesus” from 8:31. After his discussion about God’s sovereign choice and Israel’s unbelief in the remainder of chapter 9 he picks up chapter 10 speaking of his unbelieving Jewish brethren (“My heart’s desire and prayer to God for them is that they may be saved”). Here too he mentions “Christ” without using the word “Jesus”(Rom 10:4, 6, 7).
Clearly, these references to “Christ” in Romans 9:1, 3, 5; 10:4, 6, 7 are referring to the same person. For Paul to speak of “Christ Jesus” in 8:31 and then refer of someone other than Jesus by the term “Christ” in the next sentence would be a mark of grave dishonesty, quite uncharacteristic of one who “speak[s] the truth in Christ.” The references to “Christ” in the beginning of chapter 10 follow suit. To maintain that Paul is not referring to Jesus when he speaks only of “Christ” is absurdity in the highest degree. It would introduce so many interpretive problems and imply a number of contradictions which are easily avoided in a sound interpretation of his words.
Punctuation of Romans 9:5
It is no secret that there are translations which exist that attempt to downplay the fact that this verse refers to Jesus as God. Douglas Moo correctly observes that “[t]he issue is one of punctuation and therefore of interpretation, for Greek manuscripts of the NT rarely contain punctuation marks and the marks that are found tend to be sporadic and irregular.”[2] Moo lists 4 positive reasons for favoring an interpretation where “God” modifies “Christ.” 1) “the one who is” is a relative clause which normally modifies a word in the previous context. 2) “[D]oxologies are never independent but always are tied closely to the preceding context.” 3) The word “blessed” comes after “God” indicates that this isn’t an independent sentence or thought, but is tied to the previous context. 4) Paul’s use of antithesis. In other words, the Messiah is “according to the flesh” and the spiritual antithesis (used commonly by Paul elsewhere) follows: The Christ is “God over all, blessed forever.”[3]
The other option(s) generally place a period after “Christ” to impose a break of thought, rendering the remaining words as an independent doxology. For instance, the Revised Standard Version (RSV) reads “to them belong the patriarchs, and of their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ. God who is over all be blessed for ever. Amen.” The effect of this interpretation is to separate “Christ” from “God.”It is usually present, not because of grammar or syntax, but instead because it is thought improbable that Paul would identify Jesus as God in a context where he is addressing Jews (who were strictly monotheistic). These proponents admit as much[4] but betray the duty of a translator by placing preconceived theological above the grammar, syntax, and style. All things considered, a fair translation of Romans 9:5 will render Paul’s words much as the English Standard Version does, “To them belong the patriarchs, and from their race, according to the flesh, is the Christ who is God over all, blessed forever. Amen.”
Footnotes- Daniel Wallace, Greek Grammar, Beyond the Basics, An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 1996), 96-100. Note carefully that this is a genitive of simple apposition rather than a genitive of apposition. Wallace uses a similar construction in Paul’s letter to Titus on page 99. [↩]
- Douglas Moo, The Epistle to the Romans (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans, 1669), 565. [↩]
- Ibid, 567. [↩]
- Ibid. [↩]
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